When a new pharmaceutical comes on to the market, it seems to work largely as advertised and helps to mitigate the symptoms it was designed to treat. However, it creates a notable symptom that was unreported in clinical testing: major headaches in women. What, of the provided options, would be the best explanation for this phenomenon?
1) Women have a lower pain tolerance than men so it makes sense that women would have more complaints about pain than men
2) Women are sometimes completely excluded from clinical trials and this symptom might have gone unreported since women are only now being exposed to the drug
3) Women have a tendency to overreport symptoms, so men may have the same outcomes, but simply not report them
4) Men are less likely in general to get headaches than women so this is likely a regular and expected distribution of symptoms