An urn A has balls numbered 1 through 6. An urn B has balls numbered 1 through 4. What is the probability that a 4 is drawn from urn A followed by a 2 from urn B?

A. [tex]\frac{1}{24}[/tex]
B. [tex]\frac{5}{12}[/tex]
C. [tex]\frac{1}{12}[/tex]
D. [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]



Answer :

To determine the probability of drawing a 4 from urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex] followed by a 2 from urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex], we need to follow these steps:

1. Find the probability of drawing a 4 from urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex]:
- Urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex] contains balls numbered 1 through 6. Therefore, there are 6 balls in total.
- Only one of these balls is numbered 4.
- Hence, the probability of drawing a 4 from urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex] is given by:
[tex]\[ \text{Probability of drawing a 4 from urn A} = \frac{1}{6} \][/tex]

2. Find the probability of drawing a 2 from urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex]:
- Urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex] contains balls numbered 1 through 4. Thus, there are 4 balls in total.
- Only one of these balls is numbered 2.
- Thus, the probability of drawing a 2 from urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex] is:
[tex]\[ \text{Probability of drawing a 2 from urn B} = \frac{1}{4} \][/tex]

3. Calculate the combined probability of both events occurring:
- Since drawing a 4 from urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex] and drawing a 2 from urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex] are independent events, we multiply the probabilities of each event.
- Therefore, the combined probability is:
[tex]\[ \text{Combined probability} = \left(\frac{1}{6}\right) \times \left(\frac{1}{4}\right) = \frac{1}{24} \][/tex]

Thus, the probability that a 4 is drawn from urn [tex]\(A\)[/tex] followed by a 2 from urn [tex]\(B\)[/tex] is [tex]\(\frac{1}{24}\)[/tex].

Hence, the correct answer is:
[tex]\[ \boxed{\frac{1}{24}} \][/tex]