cccx1880 cccx1880
  • 22-07-2024
  • Mathematics
Answered

If there is no treatment effect, then theoretically:
A) The between-groups variance should be greater than the within-groups variance.
B) The F = 1
C) The within-groups variance should be greater than the between-groups variance.
D) Both A and B (but not C) are correct answers.
E) None of the answers above are correct.



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