Why do we have criminal liability under the doctrine of transferred intent?

A. All co-defendants are liable for the actions of all the parties. Their intents transfer.
B. This is because of the Pinkerton rule.
C. The offender intended the act but not the harm, and the intent is transferred to the harm.
D. The law does not permit the offender to escape liability because they intended the act.

Transferred intent is a legal concept where a defendant's criminal intent is shifted from an intended victim to an actual victim in order to achieve justice. This allows the defendant to be held liable for both the completed crime against the actual victim and the attempted crime against the intended victim.

Example:

If someone intended to harm Person A but ended up harming Person B instead, under transferred intent, they can be charged for the harm caused to Person B even though that was not their initial target.

Learn more about Transferred Intent in Criminal Law here:

https://brainly.com/question/44853579