A +.50 correlation between ice cream sales and violent crimes does not indicate causation; a third variable likely influences both. Understanding the correlation-causation fallacy is crucial in interpreting such data.
A +.50 correlation between ice cream cone sales and violent crimes does not mean ice cream causes violence. The most plausible explanation is the presence of a third variable, such as heat, influencing both ice cream sales and crime rates. This demonstrates the correlation-causation fallacy where a correlation does not necessarily imply causation.
https://brainly.com/question/30912507